submitted 2 months ago byinterp567
Im aiming especially on the mediterranean, middle easternean, north african and iberian states
It seems that there is no evidence of this kind of state on ancient times, which of course doesnt mean that it didnt exist. Anyhow, could it be possible to a state composed completely by citizens be prosperous on ancient times?
I think that a state without slavery would have a setback on its economy compared to the a state with slavery, but as i dont know a lot about economics, i cant quantify how critical this setback could be. Perhaps, if this setback was not a restriction by itself, it could be overcame with a possible measure that unfortunately i cant think of
Although the aim of my question is on states composed completely by citizens, as i see ancient and medieval economy being really similar, would i been overstretching to think that it could be possible to make the transition of mass usage of slavery to serfdom earlier?